Do OT Yahweh Texts Applied To Jesus Prove Jesus Is Yahweh?

In this study we will look at the popular notion that because OT texts about Yahweh are said, in the NT, to be fulfilled in some sense by Jesus, either in his first appearance, or at his second coming, that the NT authors intended their readers to understand Jesus to be Yahweh himself. This is the assertion of many apologists for the Trinity and the deity of Jesus, as well as many pastors and some scholars. I will quote a few popular personalities to demonstrate that this idea is mainstream.

Mark Kruger, president of Reformed Theological Seminary in Charlotte, NC and associate pastor of Uptown PCA, in an October 2013 post on his website Canon Fodder, said this regarding Mark’s gospel:

In fact, it is worth noting that Mark presents Jesus as God from the very opening few verses … Mark accomplishes this by beginning his gospel with citations from the Old Testament.

He then quotes Mark 1:2 and Malachi 3:1 and then says:

The first notable observation is that in the original context of Mal. 3:1, it is God himself who is coming … For Mark to apply Mal. 3:1 to the coming of Jesus, which he is clearly doing, is a very plain way of saying that Jesus is God coming to visit his people.

After further elaborating on the passage he concludes:

Thus, for Mark, Jesus is God.

On the Ligonier Ministries website,, under the Devotionals tab, is an article titled The Fulfillment of Prophecy. In it, the author, presumably R.C. Sproul, also deals with the passage in Mark 1:2-3, taking the same approach as Mark Kruger:

Also, we note that Isaiah 40:13 is about a voice that prepares the way for Yahweh, the one true God and covenant Lord of Israel. By applying this text to the voice that prepares the way for Jesus, Mark identifies Jesus as this one true God, implicitly teaching the deity of Christ.

Sam Shamoun of Answering Islam has an on-line article titled Jesus is Yahweh -Examining the New Testament Use of Old Testament Passages to Demonstrate the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ. The opening paragraph reads:

As any Bible-believing Christian already knows (assuming that he has actually carefully studied the entirety of Scriptures) the NT writers often apply OT passages which speak of certain characteristics or acts of Yahweh to the Lord Jesus. The only logical conclusion that one can arrive at is that the NT authors clearly believed that the Lord Jesus Christ was the incarnation of Yahweh God, i.e. they believed that Yahweh God Almighty had become an actual human being in the historical person of the Lord Jesus.

He then proceeds to prove his point by showing OT text which say something about Yahweh and then comparing that to NT passages which have similar language applied to Jesus, and by OT passages which are fulfilled by Jesus.

One final example. On the CARM website, run by Matt Slick, there is an article titled Jehovah is Jesus. The article consists of two columns of Bible verses, one under the heading Jehovah, and the other under the heading Jesus. There is no commentary in the article but the title reveals the intended purpose of the author. Similar kinds of language or actions attributed to Jehovah in the OT and applied to Jesus in the NT, prove that Jesus is Jehovah.

Now I admit, that at first glance, this kind of argument seems impressive. When you see all the verses listed in these articles it appears that there is overwhelming biblical data in support of the assertion that Jesus is Yahweh himself. But when you take each verse separately and study it out, what at first seemed to be impressive, then appears to be not so much so. In fact, I have come to see a naivete and shallowness in this argument. It focuses only on those passages of Scripture which seem to put Jesus in the place of Yahweh, while totally ignoring all the passages that militate against that position. When each of the passages presented in these articles is looked at on it’s own merit, I can propose an interpretation of them that does not involve Jesus being Yahweh himself, and so keep these passages consistent with those passages which make it impossible that Jesus could be Yahweh himself. I do this by understanding the Messiah to be Yahweh’s chief and ideal agent, his supreme representative, the one through whom Yahweh accomplishes his eternal purpose. This concept is so thoroughly biblical and so prevalent in both the OT and NT, that I am ashamed and embarrassed to say, that in the first 35 yrs. of my life in Messiah, I had no clue about it. But I certainly am not alone in this. I had never heard a sermon or teaching, or had never come across a book or an article touching on this biblical concept. And why had I never seen this before? Because my mind had been trained from the very beginning to understand Jesus to be God himself. And the impressive list of verses supposedly teaching this idea confirmed me in that belief. But now that I have come to understand the biblical concept of agency, the idea that prophecies, titles, and characteristics of Yahweh attributed to the Messiah means that Messiah just is Yahweh, just seems sophomoric. Sam Shamoun’s assertion that “the only logical conclusion that one can arrive at is that the NT authors clearly believed that the Lord Jesus Christ was the incarnation of God, i.e… that Yahweh Almighty had become an actual human being” is simply absurd. There is in fact a logical and reasonable and biblical alternative.

Agency is the Key

In the culture of the ancient Semitic peoples, the concept of agency was well established. According to The Encyclopedia of the Jewish Religion, the concept of agency is defined thus:

Agent (Heb. Shaliah): The main point of the Jewish law of agency is expressed in the dictum, ‘a person’s agent is regarded as the person himself’ [Ned. 72B; Kidd, 41b]. Therefore any act committed by a duly appointed agent is regarded as having been committed by the principal, who therefore bears responsibility for it with consequent complete absence of liability on the part of the agent.   Adama Books, 1986, p.15

In The One and the Many in the Israelite Conception of God, Aubrey R. Johnson expressed this concept as follows:

In Hebrew thought a patriarch’s personality extended through his entire household … in a specialized sense, when the patriarch, as lord of his household, deputized his trusted servant as his malak (his messenger or angel), the man was endowed with the authority and resources of his lord, to represent him fully and transact business in his name. In Semitic thought this messenger-representative was conceived of as being personally — and in his very words — the presence of the sender.

So in the world of the ancient Near East, when an agent was sent, whether by a king or a wealthy patriarch, the agent was to speak and act as the one who commissioned him, with all of the authority and resources of his lord at his disposal. The agent came and carried out his task in the name of his lord and so his reception or rejection, by those to whom he was sent, was actually the reception or rejection of the one who sent him. Thus the agent was to be regarded as though he himself were the one whom he represents. As James F. Ross says, in Prophecy in Israel: Search for an Identity, p.114:

It would seem that the question of the messengers authority could be answered simply: it is that of the one who sends him. Thus a messenger is to be treated as if he were his master.

Rene A. Lopez, in his paper titled Identifying the “Angel of the Lord” in the Book of Judges, stated this concerning this mysterious figure in the OT:

In the ANE context, kingly messengers often addressed others in the first person and were treated as if the actual king were present. Semitic culture thus supports understanding the angel of the Lord as a messenger who represents God, but is not God himself.

In ancient Near East texts, this concept is seen not only with human agents sent by human kings but also with divine agents sent by the gods.

In the Hebrew Scriptures this concept is demonstrated in various ways. The Hebrew word used to signify such an agent is malak. This word is often translated in our English Bibles as angel, a misleading translation. Our English word angel is a direct transliteration of the Greek word angelos, which means messenger, envoy. The translators then use the word angel to translate malak, which also means messenger. Both words malak and angelos are used of both supernatural beings and humans. When the context seems to clearly be referring to supernatural beings it is translated as angel, and when the context seems clearly to denote a human it is translated as messenger or envoy or ambassador. The word angel, in my opinion, should be dropped from our English Bibles, seeing how it has become jaded in our modern times, conjuring up images and ideas that do not accurately portray the biblical meaning of a malak. I prefer the word agent over messenger because messenger could denote simply relaying a message, whereas in the Scriptures, as we will see, a malak does more than that. The Webster’s Ninth New Collegiate Dictionary defines agent as “one who acts for or in the place of another by authority from him.” This fits quite well with the Biblical picture of a malak.

OT Examples of Agency

  1. Prophets – In 2 Chron. 36:15-16 the word malak is applied to God’s prophets:
    “Yahweh, the God of their fathers, sent word to them through his agents (malakim) again and again … But they mocked God’s agents (malakim), despised his word and mistreated his prophets until the wrath of Yahweh was aroused against his people until there was no remedy.”
    The prophet Haggai is called Yahweh’s malak in Haggai 1:13 and in Malachi 3:1 the prophecy fulfilled by John the Baptizer designates him as Yahweh’s malak. As God’s appointed representatives prophets were called to speak for God, which they often did in the first person. Sometimes the prophet would start speaking of God in the third person and then without the customary formula “thus says the LORD” suddenly switch to the first person, speaking as God himself. When we read these prophecies today it is easy to forget that these words were spoken by a representative of Yahweh, instead of directly by Yahweh himself.
  2. Moses – Though it is disputed as to whether or not Moses was ever called a malak, the fact that he was a prophet and a representative of God to the people surely entitles him to be called a malak. There is, however, a passage which I believe does refer to Moses as a malak, though perhaps, not conclusively. In Numbers 20:14-16 Moses sends messengers (Heb. malakim) to the king of Edom to say:
    “This is what your brother Israel says: You know about all the hardships that have come upon us. Our forefathers went down into Egypt, and we lived there many years. The Egyptians mistreated us and our fathers, but when we cried out to Yahweh, he heard our cry and sent an agent (malak) and brought us out of Egypt.”
    Now many do not see this as a reference to Moses, but rather to the angel who accompanied the Israelites on their journey. But I do not see any reason why the malak cannot be referring to Moses, even if this is the only time he is so designated. When we compare this verse with Exodus 3:7-10, I think it becomes clear that Numbers 20:16 is indeed speaking about Moses. In verse 7 Yahweh tells Moses that he has seen the Israelites misery and has heard their cry. In verse 9 he reiterates that he has heard their cry and in response is sending Moses “to bring my people out of Egypt.”
    We should also note in this passage how Yahweh says in verse 8, “I have come down to deliver them from the hand of the Egytians and to bring them up out of that land...” He then says in v. 10 that Moses’ task is to bring my people the Israelites out of Egypt.” Here we see a perfect example of the role of a malak — to act in God’s place, on God’s behalf, with God’s authority and power backing him. It can be said that Moses brought the Israelites out of Egypt, but it is also true that Yahweh brought them out. Yahweh was working in and through his appointed agent {see 1 Sam. 12:6}.
    Also worthy of consideration is Moses’ (and Aaron’s) role as a malak in relation to Pharaoh. In Ex.7:1 Yahweh says to Moses, “See, I have made you God (Heb. elohim) to Pharaoh and your brother Aaron will be your prophet.” It is clear that Moses is in a sense standing in for God. Later in the same chapter we see again a blurring of the lines between Moses and Yahweh, in vv. 14-20. God tells Moses to take his staff  with him and sends him to Pharaoh. In v.17 Moses is commanded to say, “This is what Yahweh says: By this you will know that I am Yahweh: With the staff that is in my hand I will strike the water of the Nile, and it will be changed to blood.”  Moses then gives the staff to Aaron and commands him to strike the water, which he does, turning the water into blood. So in whose hand was the staff and who struck the water, Yahweh or Aaron? From this we can see that when Yahweh’s agent acts on his behalf it is as if Yahweh himself is acting.
  3. Priests – Malachi 2:7 – “For the lips of a priest ought to preserve knowledge, and from his mouth men should seek instruction — for he is the agent (malak) of Yahweh of hosts.” As far as I can ascertain this is the only time in the OT where priests are designated as malakim.
    Often in the OT we read of someone going to “inquire of the LORD,” and then that “the LORD answered him.” Now if we think that this is just someone asking God in prayer and then God speaking to them in response, then we have misunderstood the text. When someone, like a king, wanted to inquire of the LORD as to what course of action to take, they had two options — find a prophet or go to the high priest. Part of the high priests official garments included the ephod, to which the breastplate was attached. In a pocket behind the breastplate was kept the Urim and Thummim, the sacred lots, by which the priest would obtain decisions from the LORD and determine God’s will in specific matters {see Ex. 28:29-30}. When Moses was told by God to lay hands on Joshua to commission him as his successor, he was given these instructions: “He (Joshua) is to stand before Eleazar the priest, who will obtain decisions for him by inquiring of the Urim before the LORD.” In 1 Samuel 21-23 we see this method of inquiring of the LORD played out in David’s life {see specifically 22:10; 23:2, 9-12}. So we see that one function of the high priest, as a malak of Yahweh was to stand in for God. When one went to inquire of the LORD, they literally went to the priest, and when they went to the priest, they actually went to the LORD.
  4. Angels – Every time we see the word angel in the OT, the Hebrew behind it is malak. As noted above, the word angel is not really a proper translation of malak, which denotes a messenger, an envoy, one with a delegated authority. Again, I propose the word agent. In this category we will be looking at malak of the supernatural or heavenly kind, what are typically known as angels. Throughout both the OT and NT, these beings are sent by God to carry out certain tasks on his behalf. As with Moses, there is often a blurring of the lines between these beings and Yahweh himself. Appearing as men, they will often speak for Yahweh in the first person, as if they were Yahweh. At the end of such encounters, those to whom they appeared (once they understand they were not dealing with a human being), will often interpret the event as seeing God himself, although it is clear that it was not actually God himself. Examples of this can be seen in Gen. 16:7-14; Gen. 18-19; 22:9-18; 31:10-13; 32:24-30; Ex. 3:1-4:17; 23:20-23; Joshua 5:13-6:5; Judges 6:1-23; 13:2-23. The malak is often so closely identified with Yahweh (he speaks and acts as Yahweh) that many scholars have been led to believe that “the angel of the Lord” is actually a personal appearance of God himself in visible form. Some postulate that it is pre-incarnate appearances of the Son of God. But there is no biblical reason to draw such a conclusion. Although it has been a popular idea, since the middle of the second century down to our present time, to view the ‘angel of the Lord’ as the pre-existent Son of God himself, the New Testament makes no such connection. No NT author ever equates the Messiah with the angel of the Lord, which is indeed strange, seeing that Christian teachers have been freely speaking this way since the middle of the 2nd century. If the believers of the first century did believe this, isn’t their silence about it baffling? In fact, in the only place in the NT where one of the OT appearances of the angel of the Lord is spoken of, in Acts 7:30-36, no mention is made of this angel being the Son of God. In this passage Stephen, who is described as being “full of faith and of the holy spirit,” recounts the incident of the burning bush. He simply says that an agent (Gr. angelos) appeared to Moses in the flames of the burning bush (v.30). He goes on in v. 35 to say that God commissioned Moses “by the hand of the agent who appeared to him in the bush.” ‘By the hand of’ is a Hebraism meaning ‘through the agency of.’ Stephen is clearly making a distinction between God and the agent through whom he spoke, and he says nothing about the agent being Messiah. Yet Stephen also says that when the agent spoke it was God speaking (vv.31-34). I think it is safe to assume that this was the way that the apostles and the first believers viewed the appearances of the ‘angel of the Lord’ in the OT, despite what Greek church fathers of the second century had to say. We can see that in their mind God’s malak stood in God’s place, speaking and acting as if he was God, yet was distinct from God.
  5. Messiah – There is one occasion in the OT in which the Messiah who was to come is designated as a malak. In Malachi 3:1 we read: “Behold, I will send my agent who will prepare the way before me. Then suddenly the Lord (Heb. adon) whom you seek will come to his temple, the agent (malak) of the covenant, whom you desire will come,” says Yahweh Almighty. In OT theology David and his line were the uniquely chosen vessels to represent Yahweh’s rule over his people { 1Chron.28:5-7; 29:23; 2 Chron. 13:4-8; Ps. 89:19-37}. As such they carried the title ‘the LORD’s anointed (Heb. mashiach = messiah; Gr. christos = christ). The Davidic king was very closely associated with Yahweh as His appointed messiah {Ps. 2; 45:2-7; 80:17; 89:21-28; 1 Chron. 29:20; Zech. 12:8; 13:7}. The rest of this study will show how the Messiah as God’s malak explains the phenomenon of the NT authors applying OT Yahweh texts to Jesus.

Messiah, God’s Ideal Agent

Now let’s look at some of the specific passages, presented in the articles quoted at the beginning of this study, which are supposed to be conclusive proof that Jesus is Yahweh.

Mark 1:2-3 – The passage used most often in this regard is Mark 1:2-3. As noted in the above articles, Mark is applying two OT passages, Mal. 3:1 and Is. 40:3, to the coming and ministry of John the baptizer. The first point worth noting is that Mark is quoting this verse with reference to John, not Jesus. This surely weakens the theory that Mark’s intention is to equate Jesus with Yahweh. He’s quoting the passage to show it’s fulfillment in John. The second point of note is the fact that Mark’s version of Mal. 3:1 and Is. 40:3 (as well as other NT quotations of these verses – Matt.3:3; 11:10; Lk. 7:27) do not match either the Masoretic Text (MT) or the LXX. Both the MT and the LXX, at Mal. 3:1, have Yahweh saying that his messenger “will prepare the way before me.” The text in Mark changes the first person to a second person pronoun – “I will send my messenger ahead of you, who will prepare your way.” This also undermines the idea that Mark wants his readers to equate Jesus with Yahweh, because the text he uses would obscure that connection. We have a similar problem with the Isaiah passage. Both the MT and the LXX read “our God” at the end of the verse, while Mark’s version reads “for him.” Again this militates against Mark wanting his readers to think Jesus is “our God.” It is true that the MT reads “prepare the way for Yahweh” in the first part of the verse. Mark’s version and the LXX, both being in Greek, read, “prepare the way for the Lord “ (Gr. kurios). What text is Mark (and Matthew and Luke) reading from? It is clearly not the MT or the LXX. Dead Sea Scrolls (DSS) readings of these verses seem to match the MT.
But for the sake of the argument, let’s just go with the MT and LXX readings. Do these readings prove that Jesus is God? The very question is absurd on it’s face. Yes the messenger (John) was to prepare the way for Yahweh and make straight a highway for God. In the appearing of Jesus of Nazareth on the scene, God was going to accomplish his long awaited plan of redemption. “God was, through Messiah, reconciling the world to himself ” {2 Cor. 5:19}. John’s mission was to ready a people prepared for what God was about to do in and through his anointed one {Lk.1:16-17}. Jesus himself told his disciples, “It is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work” {John 14:10; see also 10:31,38}. No Jew reading Malachi’s or Isaiah’s prophecy would have thought that Yahweh was literally, personally and visibly going to appear in the wilderness of Judea. They understood the language as it was intended to be understood – Yahweh was going to visit his people through the raising up of the promised Messiah. Luke gives us a clue as to how Jews understood prophecies about God coming or God visiting his people. Zechariah, the father of John, speaking in proleptic terms at the birth of his son, declared:

Praise be to the Lord, the God of Israel, because he has visited  and accomplished redemption for his people. He has raised up a horn (symbol of a king) of salvation for us in the house of his servant David …      Lk. 1:68-69

Note how Zechariah understands God visiting his people — by raising up the Messiah in  the house of David. Later in Luke’s gospel we read:

They were all filled with awe and praised God. “A great prophet has been raised up among us,” they said. “God has visited his people.”    Lk. 7:16

Again, how did the Jews understand God coming to them? By the fact that a great prophet had been raised up among them (at this stage in Jesus’ ministry the multitudes at least regarded him as a prophet, if not the Messiah). We can understand that when God’s appointed agent shows up on the scene, it is in effect God showing up. And when Yahweh foretells of something he is going to do in the future, and then some appointed agent of his shows up and carries it out, it is to be regarded as God himself doing it.

Zech. 12:10“They will look to me the one they have pierced , and they will mourn
for him as one mourns for an only child.”
Rev. 1:7“Look, he is coming with the clouds, and every eye shall see him, even those 
                    who pierced him; and all the tribes of the land will mourn because of him.”

Yahweh, in the MT and LXX, at Zech. 12:10, states that the inhabitants of Jerusalem will “look to me.Yet the author of the Revelation, speaking of Messiah at his second coming, says that Messiah is the one who was pierced. The mention of mourning in connection with this piercing, in both passages, makes it clear that the Zechariah passage is being referenced by the author of the Revelation. So does John (most scholars and commentators take the author of Rev. to be the same as the apostle John, author of the 4th gospel) intend by this reference, for his readers to understand Jesus to be Yahweh himself? Is this the “only logical conclusion that one can arrive at?” Absolutely not! To begin with, if this John of Rev. is synonymous with the apostle and author of the gospel of John, which I believe he is, then we can gain an insight into how he understood the Zechariah passage, from his gospel. In ch. 19:31-37 he relates the story about the soldiers not breaking Jesus’ legs, because he was already dead. Instead, presumably to confirm his death, one soldier thrust a spear into his side. John concludes:

These things happened so that the scripture would be fulfilled: “Not one of his bones will be broken,” and , as another scripture says, “They will look to the one they have pierced.”

Note how John words the passage from Zechariah; it does not contain the ‘me‘ of the MT and LXX. If John wanted his readers to think of Jesus as ontologically equivalent to Yahweh then why present a reading that would obscure that interpretation. It is probable that John’s particular reading of the passage is interpretive, i.e. he understands not a hypostatic equivalence between Yahweh and Messiah Jesus, but a functional equivalence. So the Messiah, as Yahweh’s agent, takes upon himself the offense committed against Yahweh. The piercing is emblematic of rejection. If the one who was sent is rejected, this is tantamount to the rejection of the one who sent him {Luke 10:16; John 15: 23; see also John 12:44}. When the Messiah was pierced, it was in effect Yahweh himself being pierced. To make the claim, based upon the juxtapostion of these two passages, that Jesus must be Yahweh himself, strikes me as a rather simple-minded, even juvenile form of exegesis.

Isaiah 45:23 – “By myself I have sworn …  to me every knee will bow and every tongue 
                            will swear.”
Phil. 2:10-11“… that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow … and every tongue 
                           confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.”

Here are another two passages which, when juxtaposed, are supposed to be proof positive that the NT authors, Paul here specifically, regarded Jesus the Messiah as Yahweh himself. But once again, the concept of agency helps us avoid such an overly simplistic reading of the NT. I would draw your attention to John 12:44:

Jesus cried out, “The one who believes in me, believes not in me, but in the one who sent me.”

The concept of agency is profoundly clear in this verse. To believe in the Messiah is in effect to believe in Yahweh who sent him. Can we not say then, that to bow the knee to Jesus and acknowledge him as Lord Messiah is equal to bowing the knee to Yahweh who sent him and who appointed him as Lord and Messiah. And can we not say that to acknowledge Jesus as Lord is to acknowledge the God who appointed him to that position. Now that God has raised up his chosen agent and has exalted him, one must now acknowledge and serve him, Messiah, in order to be faithful to God. If a man claims to be faithful to Yahweh yet refuses to bow the knee to Yahweh’s appointed ruler, then that man is not being faithful to Yahweh {Jn. 5:23}. Faith in Yahweh is now inextricably linked to faith in his anointed one {Jn. 14:1}. And to believe in God’s Messiah is to be faithful to the one who commands our belief in this Messiah {Jn. 6:28-29; 1 Jn. 3:23-24}.

Note in the Phil. passage, that the exaltation of Jesus and his having the name above all names, so that every knee would bow and every tongue confess him Lord, is something that is conferred upon him by God, as a direct result of his humble obedience, even unto death. This also militates against the idea that Paul is presenting Jesus as Yahweh. First off, Jesus is presented here as someone other than God – he is distinct from God. This God is said to have exalted Jesus and to have given him the name above all names. But if he were Yahweh wouldn’t he already have been exalted and had the name above all names? Why did these things have to be bestowed upon him, and that as a result of his obedience?

It must also be pointed out that it is not even clear that Phil. 2:10-11 is saying that every knee will bow and every tongue confess to Jesus the Messiah. Paul’s thought could be that at the name of Jesus every knee will bow to God and every tongue confess (i.e. acknowledge) to God that Jesus is Lord. Or, since the Greek word for at here is en, whose predominant meaning is in, we could read it as, “in the name of Jesus every knee will bow and every tongue confess to God the Father, that Jesus is Lord.” As I said above, since God has exalted Jesus to the highest place and given him the name above all names, it is now a prerequisite for entrance into God’s eternal kingdom to acknowledge this one, and to acknowledge him is to acknowledge the one who exalted him. God exalted him ‘so that‘ only in his name can one truly bow the knee to God (Compare Eph. 5:20 and Col. 3:17).

Joel 2:32“And everyone who calls on the name of Yahweh will be saved.”
Romans 10:12-13“For there is no difference between Jew and Gentile — the same Lord is  Lord of all and richly blesses all who call on him, for ‘everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.’ “

Much excitement is had by Trinitarians over this correlation of Scriptures, but I think without merit. It is assumed that Paul is quoting Joel 2:32 as being fulfilled in the fact that one must call on the name of the Lord Jesus to be saved. Joel says “the name of Yahweh” and Paul applies it to Jesus, hence Jesus must be Yahweh. This, once again, is far to simplistic. The above explanation is again applicable here. That is, now that the Messiah has been raised up by God and he has accomplished the work (phase 1 anyway) to which he was commissioned, God now requires acknowledgement of Jesus as Lord Messiah for ultimate salvation. So then to confess Jesus as Lord, he having been made such by God {Acts 2:36}, is equivalent to acknowledging Yahweh. To ‘call upon the name of Yahweh’ now involves confessing Jesus of Nazareth as Lord Messiah and believing that God raised him from the dead.  Yahweh has his appointed means of salvation, and those means involve a faith recognition of God’s work in and through Messiah Jesus {see Rom. 10:9; 2 Cor. 5:19}.

Also it is highly probable that Paul is not even quoting Joel 2:32 in the sense of a fulfillment in Messiah. Notice that there are none of the common formulas preceding the quotation, such as “as it is written” or “as the scripture says” or “that the scripture might be fulfilled.” I think what Paul could be doing here is a common practice (I have even done this myself) of using a passage of scripture whose wording aptly fits the present situation, but without implying that the present situation is a fulfillment of the original meaning of the passage. In fact, Paul does this same thing just five verses later at verse 18. This provides a good example of what I am referring to because v.18 is not embroiled in controversy as v. 13 is, and hence should be evident to all no matter what one’s Christological beliefs.

But I ask, did they (the Israelites) not hear? Of course they did. Their voice has gone out into all the earth, their words to the ends of the world.

Paul here quotes Psalm 19:4, but it is clear he does not mean that this passage had been fulfilled in his day by the preaching of the gospel. Paul was not stupid. He knew that the original context of Psalm 19:1-4 referred to the heavens declaring the glory of God and that everyone has heard (i.e. seen) their testimony. It is only because the wording of that passage fit his present situation (that the gospel had been thoroughly proclaimed to the Jews both in the land and in the dispersion) that Paul quoted it. Notice again the lack of a fulfillment formula.

So, I suggest that Paul is quoting Joel 2:32 simply because the wording of the passage in the LXX came to his mind as a perfect fit for the present situation, in which now, by God’s decree, men must acknowledge Jesus as Lord Messiah for everlasting salvation.

Now I could go on looking at all of the examples given in the articles mentioned at the beginning of this study, applying the concept of agency to them, and showing how there is no necessity to think that the NT authors were making an ontological equivalence between Yahweh and Jesus, but that would be superfluous. These examples should be sufficient to show that the kind of exegesis promoted in the above mentioned articles is overly simplistic and not worthy of being taken seriously.







Author: Troy Salinger

I am 55 yrs. old. I live with my wife of 32 yrs. in Picayune MS. I have been a believer in the Lord Jesus since August of 1981. I have no formal theological education, but have been an ardent student of Scripture for 36 yrs. I am a biblical Unitarian i.e. I believe the Father is the only true God (John 17:3) and Jesus is His human Son, the Messiah.

One thought on “Do OT Yahweh Texts Applied To Jesus Prove Jesus Is Yahweh?”

  1. Regarding Joel 2:32 and Romans 10:12-13, it is very relevant to note that the name “Jesus” means “Yahweh saves.” Thus calling on the name of Jesus is calling on Yahweh through the agent, and Son, through whom the Father saves. Likewise also with these verses you explained:

    “Isaiah 45:23 – “By myself I have sworn … to me every knee will bow and every tongue
    will swear.”
    Phil. 2:10-11 – “… that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow … and every tongue
    confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.”

    Here are another two passages which, when juxtaposed, are supposed to be proof positive that the NT authors, Paul here specifically, regarded Jesus the Messiah as Yahweh himself. But once again, the concept of agency helps us avoid such an overly simplistic reading of the NT. I would draw your attention to John 12:44:

    Jesus cried out, “The one who believes in me, believes not in me, but in the one who sent me.”
    The concept of agency is profoundly clear in this verse. To believe in the Messiah is in effect to believe in Yahweh who sent him. Can we not say then, that to bow the knee to Jesus and acknowledge him as Lord Messiah is equal to bowing the knee to Yahweh who sent him and who appointed him as Lord and Messiah. And can we not say that to acknowledge Jesus as Lord is to acknowledge the God who appointed him to that position. “


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