Son of God (Part 5)

In this final part of our study we will examine passages in the book of Hebrews, 2 Peter, 1 & 2 John and the Revelation. These are the remaining occurrences of the title ‘son of God’ in the NT, applied to Jesus.

Book of Hebrews

Because the first chapter of the book of Hebrews is often employed by Trinitarian Christians, in an attempt to square the metaphysical Christological conceptions of orthodoxy with the NT, it is necessary for us to spend a little extra time there. The whole first chapter (and the second for that matter) is all about the sonship of Jesus, and so, is important for a proper understanding of the title ‘the son’ as it is applied to him.

We have two main options in the interpretation of this chapter, and really in our interpretation of the whole NT, the Greek metaphysical view and the Hebraic view. Now I know that I have been harping on this all through this study, but it just is a fact that if we have the wrong presupposition when we approach this text, we will draw the wrong conclusions from the text. Every popular, evangelical commentary that I checked, approaches this text from the presupposition of the metaphysical Christology of the conciliar creeds. These commentaries are rather flagrant in their back-reading into this text the ‘son of God’ put forth in the creeds of the 4th and 5th centuries. These creeds present a metaphysical conception of the son of God and of his relationship to the God whose son he is, based on philosophical categories of ontology and essence. The Gentile church leaders at that time had consciously abandoned the Hebraic foundations of the Faith and recast the whole Jesus event in terms of Platonic and even Gnostic ideologies, which were rampant. These speculative philosophies produced the ‘son of God’ of the creeds. And so the whole of ‘Christiandom’ today is heir to this unbiblical, non-Hebraic concept of the Christ, the son of God.

So I admit up front, that I am coming to this text with a presupposition. My presupposition is not that the conciliar creeds are the standard against which one’s view of the ‘son of God’ should be weighed, but rather, that the Hebrew Scriptures alone are to be our guide to a correct understanding of the ‘son of God’ revealed in the NT writings. I have already, in part 1 of this study, laid out the clear Hebraic understanding of the ‘son of God’ in the Hebrew Bible. If you have not read part 1 please do so before going any further.

Overview

Before we look at specific verses I want to give a brief overview of Hebrews. The author of the letter is clearly a Jewish follower of Messiah, but is unnamed. There is plenty of conjecture as to who he was, such as Paul, Barnabas, Apollos, Luke, etc. Since the precise identification of the author is not important to this study I will not go there. He is writing to a specific community of Hebrew believers in Jesus with whom he is personally acquainted, probably living outside of Israel. These Hebrew believers were under great pressure to abandon their faith in Jesus, partly because of persecution (probably from their fellow Jews), partly because of a demoting of the role of Messiah in the purpose of God for Israel (probably from persuasion by some Jewish sect) and partly because of the delay in the return of Jesus to bring in the manifestation of the kingdom of God. The authors purpose is to encourage them to remain faithful to Jesus, to endure until he returns. His method is to show the superiority of Messiah’s mission and role in God’s plan as compared to the mediatorial role of angels, the role of Moses and the Law,  and the role of the Aaronic priesthood and the sacrifices offered in that system.

Chapter 1

In chapter one the author establishes the superior or more excellent status of the one called Son, in comparison to angelic beings. I said status, not ontological nature, because the author, being a Jew, would be, I suspect, thinking in Hebraic fashion, in categories of status and function. Now almost all evangelical commentators read this chapter as though the author were thinking in Greek metaphysical terms, in categories of essential nature and essence. They think he is telling his readers about the inner or essential nature of the Son rather than about the Son’s unique role and status in God’s plan for Israel. This is their big mistake, of course, but they are just following a long history of this way of thinking about and reading the biblical texts; a theological perspective inherited from the early Gentile church fathers who were imbued with the Greek philosophical mindset.

V.1 – This verse helps establish both the author and the recipients of the letter as Jews. He says, “God spoke to the fathers … .” Had he said “my fathers”, that would have designated him a Jew, but not necessarily his readers. Had he said “your fathers”, that would have designated the recipients as Jews, but not necessarily the author. By saying “the fathers” and not giving any further explanation, the most natural way to understand it is “our fathers”, and is so translated in the NIV, ESV, ISV, and the NET. “Fathers” here means ancestors and so “God spoke long ago to our ancestors by means of the prophets,” can only be referring to the Israelites, to whom the prophets of old were sent.

V.2 – Most translations have “His Son” but there is no ‘His’ in the Greek, so this is incorrect. There is also no definite article, so “the Son” would not be correct either. The ISV, NET, and YLT are correct in rendering the Greek as “a son.” The author does not mention the name of Jesus in this chapter, but only refers to this ‘son’. Of course, he and his readers know that Jesus is the ‘son’ being referred to, but at this point ‘son’ is simply a category that this one belongs to — God has spoke in one who is in the category of ‘son’ as opposed to the prophets of verse one. ‘Son of God’ is a status, a position or function which this one fulfills. It is not stated explicitly that Jesus is this ‘son of God’ until 4:14. Jesus is not unique in the bearing of this title for there were others before him who held this status and performed this function, as the Scriptures the author quotes in verse five prove. But Jesus is indeed the final and greatest one to hold this position and indeed the only one to fully realize the ideal which God had in mind; all who came before him were found wanting due to personal moral failure and death.

We know, based on verses 5, 8 and 9, what the author understands this ‘son’ position to be all about. It has nothing to do with the concept that developed later and was dogmatized in the ‘orthodox’ creeds, that of the ‘eternally generated son’ who is coeval and co-equal with the Father. The author sees this ‘son‘ as the one chosen by God to rule over God’s kingdom, on His behalf [see Son of God Part1]. This privilege and status was given only to the descendants of David. {1 Chron.17:11-14; 28:5-7; 2 Chron. 13:4-8; Ps. 132:10-12}

” … whom He appointed heir of all things … ” – Just as the firstborn son of a family in ancient Israel was the heir to the fathers estate, so the reigning Davidic king was God’s heir to the kingdom. {Ps. 2:9; 89:27; Matt. 21:37-39} The “all things” here refers not to the entire universe but all things that pertain to the kingdom of God.

” … through whom He constituted the ages … ” – Most translations say “through whom he made the world” or even “through whom he created the universe.” These are then used to bolster the claim that the ‘son’ was the creator of the material universe. But these translations are unwarranted. There is no reason why the Greek word aion should not be translated, according to the normal usage of the word, as ‘ages.’ The word denotes time not material substance. The word appears 14 other times in Hebrews and always denotes a period of time or ongoing time, with one ambiguous use at 11:3 where ‘ages’ is still probably the best translation. Also the ‘He‘ in this verse refers to God not the ‘son.’ So the verse is not saying that the son created the universe, but that God, through the son, constituted or ordained or established the ages (of time). Another misconception is that the Father created the universe through the agency of the son. But that is more in line with ancient Gnosticism than with biblical theology. I believe what the author is saying here is that God so set up the ages of time with reference to His eternal purpose for His son, i.e. the ages were arranged in accordance with God’s plan to bring His son into the world to rule His kingdom. This means that the whole of history is leading up to that moment in time.

V.3 – The author here is not speaking of the inner or essential nature of the ‘son’ as an individual being (which the orthodox creeds say is the nature of deity), simply because he is speaking of the category of ‘son’, of the position of ‘son.’ This verse then is describing the function which this ‘son’ has in relation to God and God’s people. This status of ‘son’ entails a representative function. The ‘son’, a descendent of David, sitting on the throne of Yahweh {1 Chron. 29:23}, given authority to rule over the kingdom of Yahweh {1 Chron. 28:5-6}, is, in effect, the visible representation of Yahweh’s invisible rule. Yahweh was the true King of Israel {Ps.24:7-10; 48:1-3; Is.33:22; 41:21; 43:15; 44:6; Zeph.3:15} and as such stood in a unique relationship to Israel; Israel was God’s kingdom. The descriptions of God in the Hebrew Scriptures are not ontological or metaphysical or abstract, but concrete and functional. Yahweh is Israel’s King, their Rock, their Fortress, their Redeemer, their Father, their Lord, their Strength, their Shepherd, their Savoir, their Mighty One, their Judge, their Comfort, etc. All of these (and more) are descriptions of God’s functions in relation to his people. The ‘son’, who is the visible representation of Yahweh to His people, will also carry out many of these same functions. It is God carrying out these functions through His human agent. It is from this perspective that I offer the following interpretive translation of verse three:

“(a son) … this one being the radiance of (Yahweh’s) glory (in relation to His people) and the (visible) representation of (Yahweh’s) undergirding support (as Israel’s true King), bearing the burden of all things (in relation to His kingdom) by the word of (Yahweh’s) power. Having made purification of the sins (of God’s people) he was given authority to rule on behalf of the Majesty on high.”

Now I realize that this translation is different than anything you have probably seen, but is it possible that this verse represents what I call a ‘translation rut?’ Because of the prevailing tradition within orthodoxy, this verse (as well as many others) keeps getting translated in accordance with that tradition. In the mind of ‘orthodox’ bible translators there is no reason to deviate from the accepted interpretation of this passage, and that accepted interpretation influences their translation of the passage. Because I do not interpret this passage according to orthodox tradition i.e. that it is speaking of a oneness of nature or substance or essence between God and the son, I am free to translate the verse differently, within the semantic range of the words used by the author. I am not constrained by tradition to fall into the same rut. So I will now justify my translation.

… radiance of His glory …” – The Greek for radiance is apaugasma which literally means ‘a shining out from’, that which radiates from a source, e.g. the rays of light from the sun. This is the only occurrence of this word in the NT.

” … and the representation of His undergirding support … ” – The Greek for representation is charakter which referred to the impression made in clay or wax or metal by a stamping tool, e.g. the image impressed on a coin or a wax seal; hence an image, likeness or representation. This is the only occurrence of this word also in the NT. The Greek for undergirding support is hupostasis  which has as its primary meaning ‘a standing under, a foundation or base, a support.’ But this word does have a varied semantic range. It is used 19 times in the LXX with various meanings, such as foundation, pillars (support), solid ground, building design (blueprints), and hope (ground for confidence). Hupostasis appears two other times in Hebrews, at 3:14 and 11:1, translated as ‘assurance‘ or ‘confidence.’ It appears twice in 2 Corinthians, at 9:4 and 11:17, where it seems to mean ‘a ground for boasting.’ The word does have the less prevalent meaning of ‘substance’ or ‘existence’ or ‘reality’, but I reiterate that I do not believe the author to be speaking of God in Greek metaphysical terms but rather, in Hebraic fashion, in terms of how God functions in relation to His people.

I think the author uses the concepts of God’s ‘glory’ and His ‘undergirding support’ because these ideas epitomize or sum up the many things said in the OT about God’s relationship to Israel. His ‘glory’ speaks of His righteousness, justice and salvation in connection with His kingship, as in Isaiah 44:23; 46:13; Psalm 89:14-18; 97:1-6. His ‘support’ sums up many aspects of God’s covenant responsibilities to Israel such as to be their Rock, Protector, and Defender; their Fortress, Shield, and Refuge. It also speaks of God as Israel’s hope and confidence. Biblical passages which portray God in these terms are too numerous to list, but a few examples are Psalm 18:1-3,16-18,30-36,46-50; 20:1-2; 28:7-9; Jer. 14:8; 17:13.

So Yahweh is the true King of Israel and as such performs all these various functions on their behalf. But how does He do this? Through his anointed one, the son of David, the one chosen to rule on His behalf over His kingdom. But this should not be a surprise. All throughout Israel’s history God has performed these functions through his human agents {see Judges 2:16-18; Acts 7:35}. Once God established the line of David to rule over his kingdom it was primarily through the reigning king, this one He called his ‘son‘, that He manifested His theocratic rule over, as well as His protection and care for, His people.

So what the author of Hebrews is telling his readers in this verse is that the ‘son‘ i.e. the one in the line of David, chosen to rule forever over God’s kingdom, is the visible representation of God’s theocratic rule and the agent through whom God performs His covenant responsibilities toward His people.

… bearing the burden of all things by the word of His power … ” – The traditional translation of “upholding all things” and the consequent interpretation of the Son holding the material universe together by his word is entirely unwarranted. The Greek word is phero, of which the primary meaning is ‘to carry or bear’. The idea of ‘upholding’ as in ‘holding together’ does not fit any of the 66 occurrences of this word. I believe the idea here is of the ‘son’ bearing the responsibility laid upon him by God as His representative. This concept is seen in the following passages:

“All things have been committed to me by my Father.”  Matt. 11:27

“For unto us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders.”  Isaiah 9:6

“The Father … has entrusted all judgment to the son.”  John 5:22

“The Father loves the son and has given all things into his hand.”  John 3:35

The “all things” that the son is bearing refers to all that God has committed to him to carry out, all that He has laid on his shoulders. The orthodox commentators here imagine, based on the orthodox creeds, that the ‘son’ is holding all of the created order together, sustaining and preserving it. This is sheer nonsense and not in accord with the OT portrait of the ‘son.’

” … having made purification for sins … ” – One of the responsibilities laid upon this ‘son’, a burden he gladly bore on our behalf. This purification was made by the sacrifice of himself to God {see Heb. 10:10-14}.

” … he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high.” – Having become obedient to God even unto death, he was highly exalted and given authority to rule on God’s behalf over His kingdom. This is what it means for this ‘son’ to sit at the right hand of God. This is plain from the use of the expression in the OT:

“Let your hand (of power) be upon the man at your right hand, the son of man whom you have strengthened for yourself.”  Psalm 80:17

“Yahweh says to my lord (the king), ‘Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet. Yahweh will extend your mighty scepter from Zion; rule in the midst of your enemies.”  Psalm 110:1-2

To sit at God’s right hand is equal to sitting on God’s throne, as said of Solomon in 1 Chron. 29:23 and 2 Chron. 9:8. Jesus himself said that he “sat down with (his) Father on his throne.” {Rev.3:21} So which is it? Did the Lord Jesus sit at the Father’s right hand or did he sit on the Fathers throne? They are synonymous concepts. These are metaphors, not a literal location where Jesus sat down. These metaphors express the truth that the ‘son’ was given all authority to rule over God’s kingdom with and on behalf of God. Of course this implies the son’s subordination to the one who gave him that authority {see 1 Cor. 15:27}.

V.4 – Here we are told that this ‘son’, this offspring of David chosen to rule for God, “became  (could also be translated was made) so much better than the angels … .” Now if the ‘son’ was the ‘eternally begotten Son’, co-equal with the Father and creator of the angels, would he not have always been, by nature, better than the angels. Yet the text says that he became such which surely implies there was a time when he was not such.  This is explained further at 2:9 where the author says ” … Jesus, who was made for a little while inferior to angels … “ But if Jesus was eternal Deity walking around in human flesh could he have ever been inferior to angels? The man Jesus, the final and ideal son of David, the one chosen to rule over God’s kingdom forever, was for a time inferior to the angels in that he was mortal, whereas angels are immortal. But after he suffered death for the human race he was crowned with glory and honor and exalted “above all rule and authority, power and dominion, and every title that can be given.” {Eph. 1:21}

Why does the author feel the need to tell his readers that this ‘son’ is better than the angels? Perhaps it is because they had diminished the role of the Davidic ruler in God’s plan and were giving angelic mediators more honor. Or perhaps they were even thinking of Jesus not as a real man, but as an incarnate angel. The author does lay much stress on the humanity of Jesus in chapter two. If it were the case, as we are made to believe, that all Christians from the very beginning understood Jesus to be God in human flesh, so that the author and recipients of this letter would have held that to be true, why would our author have to tell his readers these things? Would not they have already believed he was greater than angels by virtue of his being God? The whole argument of the author here shows the fallacy of that position.

The ‘son’ has inherited or obtained a more superior name when compared to the angels. I used to think that the ‘name‘ here was that of ‘son’, but I don’t think that is right. Even angels, in the Hebrew Scriptures, are called ‘sons of God.‘ I have come to see ‘name’ here as signifying fame, renown, or reputation based on ones rank or authority. As the author says at 3:3 “Jesus has been accounted worthy of greater honor than Moses … ,” so here he is basically saying that Jesus has been accounted worthy of greater honor than any angel.

V.5 – The author is not saying “Which of the angels did God ever designate as ‘son’.” Again, all (or at least some) angels are referred to as ‘sons of God’ {Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7; Ps. 29:1; 89:6-7}. Our author has something more specific in mind. The two passages of Scripture he quotes (Ps. 2:7 and 1Chron. 17:13; see Part 1 of this study) are both in reference to the Davidic king, the offspring of David chosen to rule on Yahweh’s behalf. What he is saying is this, “To which of the angels did God ever say, ‘Sit at my right hand and rule over my kingdom for me.’ ” (This is what the Father/Son relationship is about). The answer is none. This right was reserved for the descendants of David alone. {see 2 Chron. 13:5 & 8; Ps. 89:3-4,29,35-36; 132:11} This certainly makes the role of the ‘son‘ in God’s plan of much greater significance than the role of angels.

V.6 – The author sees the role of angels as inferior to that of the ‘son’ in that they are called upon to give the ‘son’ worship [ Gr. proskuneo – to pay homage and honor to one of greater rank].

V.7 – The quote from Psalm 104:4 seems to suggest a minor role for angels in God’s plan as compared to that of the ‘son’; they are sometimes ‘winds’, sometimes ‘fire’, whatever suits the need of God.

VV. 8-9 – The author’s quotation from Psalm 45 once again confirms that the ‘son‘ of which he is speaking is not an eternally begotten (whatever that means) son who is of the same substance as the Father (that is Gnostic mythology), but the ‘son‘ is the reigning Davidic king. Psalm 45 is an idealized conception of the Davidic king, not a description of a pre-existent divine being, but of God’s co-regent ruling over God’s kingdom in God’s power [see Part 1 of this study for further exegesis on Psalm 45]. The Davidic ruler is called ‘God’ in the Psalm not because he is ontologically so, but because he functions as the visible representative of God’s rule. Now the point of our author’s quoting of this passage from Psalm 45, is not that the ‘son‘ is called God, and so his readers are supposed to think the son is synonymous with God, but the point is that the Davidic throne is an everlasting throne. This he says in contrast to the role of angelic beings, as I believe his next quotation establishes.

VV.10-12 – This verse is usually employed by apologists to promote the idea that the ‘son‘ is the Creator of the material universe and is thus God. It is a quotation from Psalm 102:25-27. The Psalm, from verse 12 on, is most definitely speaking of the time when God restores His people and His city, Jerusalem, and the kingdoms of the world become His. This is what the author of Hebrews refers to in 2:5 as “the world to come.” The Psalm does not even mention the ‘son‘, so it would be strange for our author to use this verse as if it were speaking about the ‘son’; nothing in the Psalm coincides with that idea. But the Psalm does mention one specific thing which I believe is the whole reason our author employs it here. At verses 10b-12 in our Hebrews passage we read:

” … and the heavens are the work of your hands. They will perish, but you remain; they will wear out like a garment. You will roll them up like a robe; like a garment they will be changed.”  NIV

The Hebrews understood that ‘the heavens’ did not just refer to the material heavens but also to the arrangement of angelic beings in the heavens who exercise a dominion over the nations of the earth. This concept is drawn from a passage in Daniel (9:12-20) and was developed further during the intertestamental period. Paul speaks of this arrangement in the heavens in Ephesians 3:10 & 6:12. Our author sees this arrangement as a temporary situation, to be brought to an end when the present heavens “like a garment … will be changed.”  Isaiah, in 24:21-23, told of the demise of these heavenly rulers when Messiah comes to rule over all things, at which time “every knee will bow (to Jesus), in the heavens and on the earth and under the earth ...” {Phil.2:10}. So, I believe the sole purpose of this quotation from Psalm 102 is to show the inferior rank of ruling angelic beings to that of the chosen son of David, who shall rule over God’s kingdom; their rule will come to an end but the throne of the LORD’s anointed one will last forever. This interpretation is confirmed by the author in 2:5-8 where he states plainly that when the new age arrives it will not be subject to the rulers and authorities in the heavenlies, instead it will be a human being who will be crowned with glory and honor and to whom all things will be made subject.

V.13 – As I stated above, under V.3, for God to invite one to sit at his right hand is to say that God has given that one authority to rule on His behalf, over His kingdom. This honor is not given to any angel, but to the chosen son of David, according to God’s covenant promise {1Chron. 28:5-7}.

We will now examine the remaining verses in Hebrews which specifically mention the ‘son.’

3:5-6 – “Moses was faithful as a servant in all God’s household … But Messiah is faithful as a son over His household.”

Here the comparison is not between the ‘son’ and angels, but between the ‘son’ and Moses. As Jews these believers would have had a great honor and respect for Moses as the mediator of God’s law, but the author wants them to see the greater honor belonging to Messiah. To do this he portrays Moses as a servant in the household, but Messiah as a son over the household. This makes Moses’ role in God’s plan lesser than that of the ‘son‘ for Moses is a servant in the house while the ‘son‘ rules over the house. Nothing in this passage demands that we understand the ‘son‘ to be anything more than a true son of David, a true human being.

4:14 – “Therefore, since we have a great high priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus the son of God, let us hold firmly to the faith we profess.”

In chapter four the author begins to show the superior high priestly role of the ‘son’ in comparison to the Aaronic high priest. It is not the purpose of this study to examine the full import of Jesus as high priest, but I will point out that in 5:1 the author states that “every high priest is selected from among men … ,” which clearly puts Jesus, the son of God, squarely in the category of man.

5:5-6 – “In the same way, the Messiah did not exalt himself to become a high priest, but the One having said to him, ‘You are my son, today I have become your Father,’ in like manner also, in another place, says, ‘You are a priest forever in the order of Melchizedek.’ “

The author’s point here is that the honor of being high priest was bestowed upon Messiah by another, the Father, just like the honor of being ‘son of God’ was bestowed upon him. Once again we see that Jesus being the ‘son’ is not a nature derived from being a co-equal member of the Godhead, but his sonship is a position to which he has been appointed by One greater that he.

5:8-9 – “Although he (Jesus) was a son, he learned obedience from the things which he suffered, and being made perfect, he became the source of everlasting salvation for all who obey him … ”

Although from the moment of his birth Jesus was destined to rule, being the chosen son of David, it was necessary for him suffer and to learn obedience through that suffering, for his faithfulness to his God had to be tested. Having become obedient even up to the point of death (i.e. having passed the test), he was then made perfect (i.e. made immortal and thus fit to reign forever), and became the source of everlasting life (i.e. immortality, see 1 Cor. 15:21) for all who obey him.

6:6 – ” … if they should fall away, (it is impossible) to renew them unto repentance, for in their case, they are crucifying again the son of God and exposing him to public disgrace.”

Such people are exposing God’s chosen one, the son of David, who shall rule over God’s kingdom forever, to public shame. Nothing here to necessitate an eternally begotten son, of one substance with the Father.

7:3 – “Without father, without mother, without genealogy; having neither beginning of days or end of life; but having been made a simile of the son of God he remains a priest in perpetuity.”

Amazingly, I have heard this verse used as a proof text for the deity of the ‘son. The argument was that the description given of Melchizedek (based on the silence of Scripture) applies literally to the son of God, who as eternal God was without father, mother or genealogy; was without beginning of days and end of life. But that is not the point of comparison our author makes between Melchizedek and the ‘son’. The author’s point is that because Scripture is silent on all these aspects of Melchizedek’s history (of course he believes Melchizedek had a father and mother and that his life began and ended) we are to understand his priesthood as being perpetual (though in actuality it was not); this then serves as a point of comparison to the ‘son’s priesthood which is truly perpetual. In other words, the only point of similarity is in being a priest in perpetuity. This son of God, chosen from the offspring of David, is the only one to be a priest upon the throne {Zech.6:12-13}.

7:28 – “For the law appoints as high priests men who possess a weakness; but the oath … appointed the son, who has been made perfect forever.”

There is nothing here to overturn the clear Hebraic understanding of the ‘son‘ as the chosen one from the line of David who will rule God’s kingdom. Jesus is the final and ideal ‘son‘. The author is focused here on his priesthood, which is everlasting due to his being made perfect, i.e. resurrected into immortality {see 7:15-17, 23-25}.

10:29 – “How much more severely do you think a man deserves to be punished who has trampled under foot the son of God … “

In verse 28 the author tells us that anyone who rejected the law of Moses died without mercy. He has already established the temporary nature of the Law in God’s purpose and the everlasting nature of the throne of the son of God in God’s purpose. It is only reasonable that the penalty for rejecting that which is everlasting should exceed that for rejecting  what is temporary. To reject the one chosen by God to rule His kingdom forever, is a very serious matter.

I was hoping to finish this study with this post, but I will have to do one more. Thanks for staying with it.

 

 

 

 

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Author: Troy Salinger

I am 55 yrs. old. I live with my wife of 32 yrs. in Picayune MS. I have been a believer in the Lord Jesus since August of 1981. I have no formal theological education, but have been an ardent student of Scripture for 36 yrs. I am a biblical Unitarian i.e. I believe the Father is the only true God (John 17:3) and Jesus is His human Son, the Messiah.

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